We want to find a counterexample that proves the given conjecturefalse. We can describe the conjecture with the following inequality.
n+1/n>1
Notice that the fraction's numerator is always going to be 1 greater than the denominator. Does this mean the fraction is always greater than 1? No! If n= - 1 the numerator will be 0, which gives a quotient of 0.
- 1+1/- 1=0/- 1=0
Since 0<1, we have found a counterexample that proves the conjecture false.